
Origin of "I can haz"? - English Language & Usage Stack Exchange
Apr 10, 2011 · It's one of a long line of "memes" emanating from 4chan (Along with lolcat, rickroll, etc.) It came from a picture of a cat with the caption "I CAN HAS CHEEZBURGER?" and since then the "I can has" part has been applied elsewhere. Basically it's an internet in-joke which became adopted by people who were not "in" with the joke.
he can has or he can have? - HiNative
Jul 5, 2021 · You do not inflect verbs after a modal verb (can, will, would, must etc) He can have|As well, it is 'he can have'.
he can has or he can have? - HiNative
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he can has or he can have? - HiNative
You do not inflect verbs after a modal verb (can, will, would, must etc) He can have|As well, it is 'he can have'. The verb after a modal is always infintive. 英語 (美國) 法語 (法國) 德語 意大利語 日語 韓語 波蘭語 葡萄牙語 (巴西) 葡萄牙語 (葡萄牙) 俄語 中文 (簡體) 西班牙語 (墨西哥) 中文 (繁體 ...
"Can have" vs. "could have" - English Language & Usage Stack …
He can have the hammer. (He has the necessary permission to possess the hammer.) Some people consider this wrong and that the correct word is may, but in contemporary English, using can have signifies permission over ability, because the cases where someone is unable to possess something are very few and far between. This is not necessarily ...
he can has or he can have? - HiNative
You do not inflect verbs after a modal verb (can, will, would, must etc) He can have|As well, it is 'he can have'. The verb after a modal is always infintive.
verbs - Grammatical rule for using has vs. does - English Language ...
May 21, 2016 · Tea has caffeine, and so does coffee. His question was: "Why can't you use the word "has" in place of "does"? The use of 'does' is correct. But you're right, there should be no comma. In fact, if I were to correct the sentence, I would rewrite it …
grammaticality - Ending a sentence with 'has' - English Language ...
Dec 3, 2019 · Has does not, actually end the sentence. It ends a subordinate clause: A true student would give everything he has and owns to his guru. In this, the main clause is A true student would give everything to his guru. "he has and owns" is a subordinate relative clause = that he has and that he owns, and refers to, and modifies, "everything". Likewise,
When do we use “had had” and “have had”? [duplicate]
She has never indulged in sex by the time of her 18th birthday, today. can be translated to. I am having breakfast. I have had breakfast. She has never had sex by the time of her 18th birthday, today. Referring to a past time of reference, She had never had sex by the time of her 18th birthday, three years ago.
modal verbs - Using "may" vs. "can" to express permission
Jan 13, 2025 · The use of can to ask or grant permission has been common since the 19th century and is well established, although some commentators feel may is more appropriate in formal contexts. ...'. The comment 'the frequent misuse of can , not what is considered good English' is either your own or from some uncited source; the impression that it is taken ...